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Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
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Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
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Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Will the British Parliament prevent “Brexit”?In a Westminster system, why would the PM voluntarily dissolve a majority government?Does the United Kingdom, in practice, have other constitutional principles which limit the principle of Parliamentary Sovereignty?What power does the Queen have in the event of a Hung Parliament?Why don't Sinn Féin take their seats in the UK parliament?What are the limits to the power of the City Remembrancer?Why doesn't the UK hold a second Brexit referendum to clarify what the public wants from Brexit?Have the UK Conservatives lost the working majority and if so, what does this mean?How has the division of power worked, between govt and parliament, in modern Britain?Why don't hard Brexiteers insist on a hard border to prevent illegal immigration after Brexit?
Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
What I mean by absolute power is: presumably they can make illegal or legal whatever they want. Even going so far as to disenfranchise their own electorate.
Is this correct, or are there any checks on the power of Parliament?
united-kingdom parliament
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
add a comment |
Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
What I mean by absolute power is: presumably they can make illegal or legal whatever they want. Even going so far as to disenfranchise their own electorate.
Is this correct, or are there any checks on the power of Parliament?
united-kingdom parliament
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
add a comment |
Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
What I mean by absolute power is: presumably they can make illegal or legal whatever they want. Even going so far as to disenfranchise their own electorate.
Is this correct, or are there any checks on the power of Parliament?
united-kingdom parliament
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
Does Parliament hold absolute power in the UK?
What I mean by absolute power is: presumably they can make illegal or legal whatever they want. Even going so far as to disenfranchise their own electorate.
Is this correct, or are there any checks on the power of Parliament?
united-kingdom parliament
united-kingdom parliament
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
edited 3 hours ago
JJJ
6,48522457
6,48522457
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
asked 4 hours ago
BenBen
3,2551539
3,2551539
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
The Fixed-term Parliaments Act means they have to respond to the electorate, eventually. In fact this provision has existed for a long time in various forms
The Septennial Act 1715 provided that a parliament expired seven years after it had been summoned; this period was reduced to five years by the Parliament Act 1911.
The House of Lords can exercise some restraint in terms constitutionality of laws, although given the lack of a single, written constitution in the UK that's a complicated exercise.
Presumably the Queen can withhold Royal Assent on some completely insane law, but there isn't much in the way recent precedent.
The last bill that was refused assent by the sovereign (on the advice of ministers) was the Scottish Militia Bill during Queen Anne's reign in 1708.
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Another elephant in the room here is the European Convention on Human Rights, an international convention to which the UK is a party state. This effectively gives a supranational body, the European Court of Human Rights the power to pass judgement that a contracting state has breached provisions in the convention concerning human civil and political rights.
The original treaty does let states leave (denounce the treaty), but only after a 5 year cooling off period. As with all international treaties, it's not entirely clear what would happen if a state just unilaterally stopped playing ball immediately, especially if it were willing to enter a period of North Korean style isolationism, but it is another element in play, beyond the various parties (and the two houses) of Parliament watching each other.
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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active
oldest
votes
The Fixed-term Parliaments Act means they have to respond to the electorate, eventually. In fact this provision has existed for a long time in various forms
The Septennial Act 1715 provided that a parliament expired seven years after it had been summoned; this period was reduced to five years by the Parliament Act 1911.
The House of Lords can exercise some restraint in terms constitutionality of laws, although given the lack of a single, written constitution in the UK that's a complicated exercise.
Presumably the Queen can withhold Royal Assent on some completely insane law, but there isn't much in the way recent precedent.
The last bill that was refused assent by the sovereign (on the advice of ministers) was the Scottish Militia Bill during Queen Anne's reign in 1708.
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
add a comment |
The Fixed-term Parliaments Act means they have to respond to the electorate, eventually. In fact this provision has existed for a long time in various forms
The Septennial Act 1715 provided that a parliament expired seven years after it had been summoned; this period was reduced to five years by the Parliament Act 1911.
The House of Lords can exercise some restraint in terms constitutionality of laws, although given the lack of a single, written constitution in the UK that's a complicated exercise.
Presumably the Queen can withhold Royal Assent on some completely insane law, but there isn't much in the way recent precedent.
The last bill that was refused assent by the sovereign (on the advice of ministers) was the Scottish Militia Bill during Queen Anne's reign in 1708.
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
add a comment |
The Fixed-term Parliaments Act means they have to respond to the electorate, eventually. In fact this provision has existed for a long time in various forms
The Septennial Act 1715 provided that a parliament expired seven years after it had been summoned; this period was reduced to five years by the Parliament Act 1911.
The House of Lords can exercise some restraint in terms constitutionality of laws, although given the lack of a single, written constitution in the UK that's a complicated exercise.
Presumably the Queen can withhold Royal Assent on some completely insane law, but there isn't much in the way recent precedent.
The last bill that was refused assent by the sovereign (on the advice of ministers) was the Scottish Militia Bill during Queen Anne's reign in 1708.
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
The Fixed-term Parliaments Act means they have to respond to the electorate, eventually. In fact this provision has existed for a long time in various forms
The Septennial Act 1715 provided that a parliament expired seven years after it had been summoned; this period was reduced to five years by the Parliament Act 1911.
The House of Lords can exercise some restraint in terms constitutionality of laws, although given the lack of a single, written constitution in the UK that's a complicated exercise.
Presumably the Queen can withhold Royal Assent on some completely insane law, but there isn't much in the way recent precedent.
The last bill that was refused assent by the sovereign (on the advice of ministers) was the Scottish Militia Bill during Queen Anne's reign in 1708.
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
edited 4 hours ago
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
answered 4 hours ago
FizzFizz
15k23796
15k23796
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
add a comment |
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
2
2
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
Given parliament could simply repeal the FTPA (presuming royal assent), I don't really think that's much of a check on their power.
– CoedRhyfelwr
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
@CoedRhyfelwr: It's a good question what would happen if the HoC passed a law declaring themselves MPs for life (either implicitly or explicitly). But as with all such hypotheticals, given the lack of a written constitution, we can only speculate.
– Fizz
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
I suppose my question revolves around disenfranchising their own electorate. In effect changing the rules of the game such that the electorate’s vote is diminished in some way, in future general elections. Presumably this is well within the power of the Parliament.
– Ben
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
@Ben: do you mean like gerrymandering?
– Fizz
4 hours ago
1
1
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
@Ben Elections are indeed fundamentally controlled by legislation, along with bodies such as the Electoral commission, created by legislation. Indeed one of the current arguments against the ID trials being continued in the upcoming UK local elections is that it unfairly disenfranchises some voters.
– origimbo
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Another elephant in the room here is the European Convention on Human Rights, an international convention to which the UK is a party state. This effectively gives a supranational body, the European Court of Human Rights the power to pass judgement that a contracting state has breached provisions in the convention concerning human civil and political rights.
The original treaty does let states leave (denounce the treaty), but only after a 5 year cooling off period. As with all international treaties, it's not entirely clear what would happen if a state just unilaterally stopped playing ball immediately, especially if it were willing to enter a period of North Korean style isolationism, but it is another element in play, beyond the various parties (and the two houses) of Parliament watching each other.
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
add a comment |
Another elephant in the room here is the European Convention on Human Rights, an international convention to which the UK is a party state. This effectively gives a supranational body, the European Court of Human Rights the power to pass judgement that a contracting state has breached provisions in the convention concerning human civil and political rights.
The original treaty does let states leave (denounce the treaty), but only after a 5 year cooling off period. As with all international treaties, it's not entirely clear what would happen if a state just unilaterally stopped playing ball immediately, especially if it were willing to enter a period of North Korean style isolationism, but it is another element in play, beyond the various parties (and the two houses) of Parliament watching each other.
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
add a comment |
Another elephant in the room here is the European Convention on Human Rights, an international convention to which the UK is a party state. This effectively gives a supranational body, the European Court of Human Rights the power to pass judgement that a contracting state has breached provisions in the convention concerning human civil and political rights.
The original treaty does let states leave (denounce the treaty), but only after a 5 year cooling off period. As with all international treaties, it's not entirely clear what would happen if a state just unilaterally stopped playing ball immediately, especially if it were willing to enter a period of North Korean style isolationism, but it is another element in play, beyond the various parties (and the two houses) of Parliament watching each other.
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
Another elephant in the room here is the European Convention on Human Rights, an international convention to which the UK is a party state. This effectively gives a supranational body, the European Court of Human Rights the power to pass judgement that a contracting state has breached provisions in the convention concerning human civil and political rights.
The original treaty does let states leave (denounce the treaty), but only after a 5 year cooling off period. As with all international treaties, it's not entirely clear what would happen if a state just unilaterally stopped playing ball immediately, especially if it were willing to enter a period of North Korean style isolationism, but it is another element in play, beyond the various parties (and the two houses) of Parliament watching each other.
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
answered 3 hours ago
origimboorigimbo
13.8k23355
13.8k23355
add a comment |
add a comment |
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