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Were Persian-Median kings illiterate?
Purim and Shushan PurimParashat TzavWhy do we honor Charvona, specifically?Charvona? How many Charvona's were there?Were the converts mentioned in the Megillah actually Jews?Who were the “girls” that fasted with Esther?Why were Haman's sons killed?Who were the Jewish Governors during the Persian Era?What language is called by the Gemara עברית / Ivrit and who were the עברים / Ivrim?
In the Megillah, we read (6:1):
בַּלַּיְלָה הַהוּא נָדְדָה שְׁנַת הַמֶּלֶךְ וַיֹּאמֶר לְהָבִיא אֶת־סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת דִּבְרֵי הַיָּמִים וַיִּהְיוּ נִקְרָאִים לִפְנֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ
On that night, the king's sleep was disturbed. He said to bring the book of chronicles, and they read it before the king.
Likewise, in Ezra 4:18, Artachshasta (who was either Koreish/Daryavesh, according to Rashi, or Achashveirosh, according to Ralbag) says that he had a letter read to him:
נִשְׁתְּוָנָא דִּי שְׁלַחְתּוּן עֲלֶינָא מְפָרַשׁ קֱרִי קָדָמָי
The letter which you have sent to me has been explained and read before me.
Why didn't these kings read the text themselves? At first, I thought maybe it was just the way of kings to have others read things to them, but we find that Jewish kings did read (Yehoram in Melachim 2:5:7, Yoshiah in ibid. 22:16 and 23:2), as well as Babylonian ones (Sanhedrin 22a explains that the handwriting on the wall was written in code, implying Belshatzar could read it otherwise).
According to the Ralbag, perhaps since Achashveirosh's father was a stable boy (Megillah 12b), he simply didn't have the education to know how to read. But Rashi learns that Artachshasta was a different king; what was his excuse?
I see three possibilities here:
- Specifically Persian-Median kings had the custom to be read to, rather than reading themselves.
- Persian-Median kings were incapable of reading.
- Persian-Median kings could read, but Achashveirosh was ill-educated, and Koreish...?
Which of these is correct?
megillat-esther ezra-nechemya
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
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In the Megillah, we read (6:1):
בַּלַּיְלָה הַהוּא נָדְדָה שְׁנַת הַמֶּלֶךְ וַיֹּאמֶר לְהָבִיא אֶת־סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת דִּבְרֵי הַיָּמִים וַיִּהְיוּ נִקְרָאִים לִפְנֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ
On that night, the king's sleep was disturbed. He said to bring the book of chronicles, and they read it before the king.
Likewise, in Ezra 4:18, Artachshasta (who was either Koreish/Daryavesh, according to Rashi, or Achashveirosh, according to Ralbag) says that he had a letter read to him:
נִשְׁתְּוָנָא דִּי שְׁלַחְתּוּן עֲלֶינָא מְפָרַשׁ קֱרִי קָדָמָי
The letter which you have sent to me has been explained and read before me.
Why didn't these kings read the text themselves? At first, I thought maybe it was just the way of kings to have others read things to them, but we find that Jewish kings did read (Yehoram in Melachim 2:5:7, Yoshiah in ibid. 22:16 and 23:2), as well as Babylonian ones (Sanhedrin 22a explains that the handwriting on the wall was written in code, implying Belshatzar could read it otherwise).
According to the Ralbag, perhaps since Achashveirosh's father was a stable boy (Megillah 12b), he simply didn't have the education to know how to read. But Rashi learns that Artachshasta was a different king; what was his excuse?
I see three possibilities here:
- Specifically Persian-Median kings had the custom to be read to, rather than reading themselves.
- Persian-Median kings were incapable of reading.
- Persian-Median kings could read, but Achashveirosh was ill-educated, and Koreish...?
Which of these is correct?
megillat-esther ezra-nechemya
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
add a comment |
In the Megillah, we read (6:1):
בַּלַּיְלָה הַהוּא נָדְדָה שְׁנַת הַמֶּלֶךְ וַיֹּאמֶר לְהָבִיא אֶת־סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת דִּבְרֵי הַיָּמִים וַיִּהְיוּ נִקְרָאִים לִפְנֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ
On that night, the king's sleep was disturbed. He said to bring the book of chronicles, and they read it before the king.
Likewise, in Ezra 4:18, Artachshasta (who was either Koreish/Daryavesh, according to Rashi, or Achashveirosh, according to Ralbag) says that he had a letter read to him:
נִשְׁתְּוָנָא דִּי שְׁלַחְתּוּן עֲלֶינָא מְפָרַשׁ קֱרִי קָדָמָי
The letter which you have sent to me has been explained and read before me.
Why didn't these kings read the text themselves? At first, I thought maybe it was just the way of kings to have others read things to them, but we find that Jewish kings did read (Yehoram in Melachim 2:5:7, Yoshiah in ibid. 22:16 and 23:2), as well as Babylonian ones (Sanhedrin 22a explains that the handwriting on the wall was written in code, implying Belshatzar could read it otherwise).
According to the Ralbag, perhaps since Achashveirosh's father was a stable boy (Megillah 12b), he simply didn't have the education to know how to read. But Rashi learns that Artachshasta was a different king; what was his excuse?
I see three possibilities here:
- Specifically Persian-Median kings had the custom to be read to, rather than reading themselves.
- Persian-Median kings were incapable of reading.
- Persian-Median kings could read, but Achashveirosh was ill-educated, and Koreish...?
Which of these is correct?
megillat-esther ezra-nechemya
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
In the Megillah, we read (6:1):
בַּלַּיְלָה הַהוּא נָדְדָה שְׁנַת הַמֶּלֶךְ וַיֹּאמֶר לְהָבִיא אֶת־סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת דִּבְרֵי הַיָּמִים וַיִּהְיוּ נִקְרָאִים לִפְנֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ
On that night, the king's sleep was disturbed. He said to bring the book of chronicles, and they read it before the king.
Likewise, in Ezra 4:18, Artachshasta (who was either Koreish/Daryavesh, according to Rashi, or Achashveirosh, according to Ralbag) says that he had a letter read to him:
נִשְׁתְּוָנָא דִּי שְׁלַחְתּוּן עֲלֶינָא מְפָרַשׁ קֱרִי קָדָמָי
The letter which you have sent to me has been explained and read before me.
Why didn't these kings read the text themselves? At first, I thought maybe it was just the way of kings to have others read things to them, but we find that Jewish kings did read (Yehoram in Melachim 2:5:7, Yoshiah in ibid. 22:16 and 23:2), as well as Babylonian ones (Sanhedrin 22a explains that the handwriting on the wall was written in code, implying Belshatzar could read it otherwise).
According to the Ralbag, perhaps since Achashveirosh's father was a stable boy (Megillah 12b), he simply didn't have the education to know how to read. But Rashi learns that Artachshasta was a different king; what was his excuse?
I see three possibilities here:
- Specifically Persian-Median kings had the custom to be read to, rather than reading themselves.
- Persian-Median kings were incapable of reading.
- Persian-Median kings could read, but Achashveirosh was ill-educated, and Koreish...?
Which of these is correct?
megillat-esther ezra-nechemya
megillat-esther ezra-nechemya
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
asked 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16k12582
16k12582
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1 Answer
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In the case of Achashveirosh, Rashi writes:
(from sefaria)
לְהָבִיא אֶת סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת. דֶּרֶךְ הַמְּלָכִים, כְּשֶׁשְּׁנָתָן נוֹדֶדֶת, אוֹמְרִים לִפְנֵיהֶם מְשָׁלִים וְשִׂיחוֹת עַד שֶׁשְּׁנָתָם חוֹזֶרֶת עֲלֵיהֶם.
To bring the book of archives. It is the custom of kings that when their sleep is disturbed, parables and tales are recounted before them until their sleep is restored.
Thus, regardless of whether he was literate or not, it would have been read to him.
In the case of Artachshasta, R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod quotes someone (I'm not sure who it is)1 who suggests that it was translated for him from Aramaic to Persian - again, not an indication that he was illiterate.
1 R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod agrues with this explanation, but JPS also explains it like this.
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
In the case of Achashveirosh, Rashi writes:
(from sefaria)
לְהָבִיא אֶת סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת. דֶּרֶךְ הַמְּלָכִים, כְּשֶׁשְּׁנָתָן נוֹדֶדֶת, אוֹמְרִים לִפְנֵיהֶם מְשָׁלִים וְשִׂיחוֹת עַד שֶׁשְּׁנָתָם חוֹזֶרֶת עֲלֵיהֶם.
To bring the book of archives. It is the custom of kings that when their sleep is disturbed, parables and tales are recounted before them until their sleep is restored.
Thus, regardless of whether he was literate or not, it would have been read to him.
In the case of Artachshasta, R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod quotes someone (I'm not sure who it is)1 who suggests that it was translated for him from Aramaic to Persian - again, not an indication that he was illiterate.
1 R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod agrues with this explanation, but JPS also explains it like this.
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
add a comment |
In the case of Achashveirosh, Rashi writes:
(from sefaria)
לְהָבִיא אֶת סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת. דֶּרֶךְ הַמְּלָכִים, כְּשֶׁשְּׁנָתָן נוֹדֶדֶת, אוֹמְרִים לִפְנֵיהֶם מְשָׁלִים וְשִׂיחוֹת עַד שֶׁשְּׁנָתָם חוֹזֶרֶת עֲלֵיהֶם.
To bring the book of archives. It is the custom of kings that when their sleep is disturbed, parables and tales are recounted before them until their sleep is restored.
Thus, regardless of whether he was literate or not, it would have been read to him.
In the case of Artachshasta, R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod quotes someone (I'm not sure who it is)1 who suggests that it was translated for him from Aramaic to Persian - again, not an indication that he was illiterate.
1 R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod agrues with this explanation, but JPS also explains it like this.
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
add a comment |
In the case of Achashveirosh, Rashi writes:
(from sefaria)
לְהָבִיא אֶת סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת. דֶּרֶךְ הַמְּלָכִים, כְּשֶׁשְּׁנָתָן נוֹדֶדֶת, אוֹמְרִים לִפְנֵיהֶם מְשָׁלִים וְשִׂיחוֹת עַד שֶׁשְּׁנָתָם חוֹזֶרֶת עֲלֵיהֶם.
To bring the book of archives. It is the custom of kings that when their sleep is disturbed, parables and tales are recounted before them until their sleep is restored.
Thus, regardless of whether he was literate or not, it would have been read to him.
In the case of Artachshasta, R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod quotes someone (I'm not sure who it is)1 who suggests that it was translated for him from Aramaic to Persian - again, not an indication that he was illiterate.
1 R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod agrues with this explanation, but JPS also explains it like this.
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
In the case of Achashveirosh, Rashi writes:
(from sefaria)
לְהָבִיא אֶת סֵפֶר הַזִּכְרֹנוֹת. דֶּרֶךְ הַמְּלָכִים, כְּשֶׁשְּׁנָתָן נוֹדֶדֶת, אוֹמְרִים לִפְנֵיהֶם מְשָׁלִים וְשִׂיחוֹת עַד שֶׁשְּׁנָתָם חוֹזֶרֶת עֲלֵיהֶם.
To bring the book of archives. It is the custom of kings that when their sleep is disturbed, parables and tales are recounted before them until their sleep is restored.
Thus, regardless of whether he was literate or not, it would have been read to him.
In the case of Artachshasta, R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod quotes someone (I'm not sure who it is)1 who suggests that it was translated for him from Aramaic to Persian - again, not an indication that he was illiterate.
1 R. Mordechai Zer-Kavod agrues with this explanation, but JPS also explains it like this.
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
edited 1 hour ago
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
answered 1 hour ago
PloniPloni
4,5801459
4,5801459
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