“Seemed to had” is it correct? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar...
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“Seemed to had” is it correct?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
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Here's a sentence I made up:
"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"
Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.
Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:
"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"
Would it still be grammatical?
grammar grammaticality
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
add a comment |
Here's a sentence I made up:
"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"
Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.
Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:
"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"
Would it still be grammatical?
grammar grammaticality
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Here's a sentence I made up:
"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"
Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.
Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:
"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"
Would it still be grammatical?
grammar grammaticality
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
Here's a sentence I made up:
"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"
Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.
Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:
"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"
Would it still be grammatical?
grammar grammaticality
grammar grammaticality
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
asked 1 hour ago
FrostC0FrostC0
354210
354210
after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago
add a comment |
after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago
after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago
after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."
This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:
seem / appear to + infinitive
After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).
...
So what you should say is either of:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.
The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
add a comment |
No,
He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.
is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.
Here's what you should use:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
add a comment |
to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:
He seems to understand. [bare, present]
He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]
The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."
This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:
seem / appear to + infinitive
After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).
...
So what you should say is either of:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.
The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
add a comment |
No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."
This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:
seem / appear to + infinitive
After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).
...
So what you should say is either of:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.
The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
add a comment |
No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."
This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:
seem / appear to + infinitive
After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).
...
So what you should say is either of:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.
The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."
This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:
seem / appear to + infinitive
After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).
...
So what you should say is either of:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.
He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.
The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
edited 1 hour ago
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
answered 1 hour ago
Lorel C.Lorel C.
4,7121510
4,7121510
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
add a comment |
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.
– phoog
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
Thank you for the help!
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
@phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.
– Colin Fine
50 mins ago
add a comment |
No,
He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.
is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.
Here's what you should use:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
add a comment |
No,
He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.
is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.
Here's what you should use:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
add a comment |
No,
He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.
is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.
Here's what you should use:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
No,
He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.
is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.
Here's what you should use:
He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
answered 1 hour ago
RobustoRobusto
12.5k23044
12.5k23044
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
1
1
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.
– FrostC0
1 hour ago
add a comment |
to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:
He seems to understand. [bare, present]
He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]
The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
add a comment |
to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:
He seems to understand. [bare, present]
He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]
The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
add a comment |
to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:
He seems to understand. [bare, present]
He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]
The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:
He seems to understand. [bare, present]
He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]
The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
answered 1 hour ago
LambieLambie
17.6k1540
17.6k1540
add a comment |
add a comment |
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after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.
– Lambie
1 hour ago