Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land?Parashat Tazria+HachodeshPesach/PassoverTribe of...
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Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land?
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Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land?
Parashat Tazria+HachodeshPesach/PassoverTribe of ConvertsCan a convert (ger tzedek) serve on a beis din to annul a non-convert's vows?May converts migrate to Israel?Where did the converts camp in the desert?Did each tribe of Israel serve a specific purpose?When Moshiach arrives, will each individual Jewish person have their own personal allotment of land?Ger Toshav own land in Eretz Yisrael?Halachically, do Israeli citizens own their land?Is taking control of land by a Jew in Israel a sin if it was not controlled by him before?Ger Tzedek/Tzadik earliest sources and definitionIs a Ger Tzedek who is biologically a son of Nathin permitted to marry a 'regular' Jew?
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
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asked 3 hours ago
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Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
3
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
edited 2 hours ago
DonielF
16.9k12689
16.9k12689
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
asked 3 hours ago
filoxfilox
312
312
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
filox is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
3
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
3
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
3
3
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
answered 2 hours ago
DonielFDonielF
16.9k12689
16.9k12689
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
add a comment |
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
1 hour ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
40 mins ago
add a comment |
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
2 hours ago
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
2 hours ago
3
Possible duplicate of Tribe of Converts
– Yaacov Deane
2 hours ago